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MCQs in Tropical Medicine

Rob Skelly DTM+H FRCP

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Home pageMCQ technique Paper 1 Paper 2 Paper 3 Paper 4 Paper 5 Answers Further reading Web resources


1. The following are recognised causes of eosinophilia
a. malaria
b. visceral leishmaniasis
c. Churg-Strauss syndrome
d. drug hypersensitivity
e. visceral larva migrans (toxocariasis)
Answer 1

2. Giardia lamblia
a. is usually acquired by ingestion of food or water contaminated by the trophozoites
b. trophozoites have four flagella
c. can effectively be treated by mepacrine
d. cysts are killed by standard chlorination of water
e. cysts survive in water boiled for ten minutes
Answer 2

3. Mosquitoes are the vector in the following disorders
a. onchocerciasis
b. visceral leishmaniasis
c. myiasis
d. African trypanosomiasis
e. Bancroftian filariasis
Answer 3

4. Consumption of raw fish or shellfish is associated with infection caused by
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Schistosoma japonicum
d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
e. Paragonimus westermani
Answer 4

5. Following splenectomy for trauma
a. thrombocytopaenia is typical
b. pneumococcal vaccine should be given
c. malaria is more severe
d. prophylactic penicillin should be taken for six weeks
e. Heinz bodies are characteristically seen on the blood film
Answer 5

6. Nephrotic syndrome is a recognised complication of infection with
a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Plasmodium malariae
c. Hepatitis B virus
d. Mycobacterium leprae
e. Loa loa
Answer 6

7. HIV positive patients may receive
a. measles vaccine
b. TY21a (oral typhoid vaccine)
c. Hib vaccine
d. BCG
e. Havrix (hepatitis A vaccine)
Answer 7

8. Steroids are of benefit in the treatment of
a. visceral leishmaniasis
b. Eschericia coli septicaemia
c. cerebral malaria
d. severe typhoid fever
e. herpes zoster recrudescence (shingles)
Answer 8

9. In tuberculoid leprosy
a. peripheral nerves are involved symmetrically
b. the lepromin test is positive
c. hair growth is normal in affected skin lesions
d. smear negative cases can be treated with steroids alone
e. skin lesions usually have a well-demarcated, raised edge
Answer 9

10. Plasmodium falciparum
a. causes more severe disease in pregnancy
b. is associated with recurrent relapses after initial treatment because of liver hypnozoites
c. is the only malarial parasite causing greater than 20% parasitaemia
d. infection is typically associated with thrombocytopaenia
e. is the only cause of cerebral malaria
Answer 10

11. The following infectious diseases are correctly matched to their period of infectivity:
a. chicken pox: from appearance of rash until the last spot is crusted over
b. rubella: 7 days before onset of rash until 4 days after onset of rash
c. mumps: 7 days before salivary swelling until appearance of salivary swelling
d. scarlet fever: from appearance of rash until completion of 1 day's penicillin
e. measles: from onset of prodrome until 4 days after onset of rash
Answer 11

12. Amoebic liver abscess:
a. should be treated by diloxanide furoate alone
b. should be aspirated routinely
c. is associated with eosinophilia
d. usually affects the right lobe of the liver
e. occur most commonly in men aged 20-60 years
Answer 12

13. A woman who had not previously travelled abroad spent five days in Zambia. She went on safari on the fifth day and on the following day she became ill with fever and an erythematous rash. She is likely to be suffering from:
a. hepatitis A
b. loa loa
c. falciparum malaria
d. brucellosis
e. Hodgkin's disease
Answer 13

14. In enteric fever
a. severe cases should receive high dose dexamethasone
b. ciprofloxacin is the treatment of choice in the UK. for adults
c. jaundice is a recognised complication
d. myocarditis is a recognised complication
e. if perforation of the bowel occurs it should be managed conservatively because surgery carries too high a mortality.
Answer 14

15. Hepatitis B.
a. Babies born to hepatitis B e antigen positive (HBeAg+ve) mothers should be given active and passive immunisation at birth.
b. According to current DHSS guidelines, children in the UK. should be vaccinated against hepatitis B by age 16.
c. Co-infection with delta virus may occur in intravenous drug abusers but occurs less commonly in homosexuals.
d. Super-infection with delta virus causes a clinical deterioration.
e. Is the major underlying cause of hepatocellular carcinoma.
Answer 15

16. E.coli 0157 / H7:
a. is a bowel commensal
b. causes haemorrhagic colitis
c. is an important cause of cholera-like illness
d. is a recognised cause of the haemolytic uraemic syndrome
e. can be prevented from causing clinical illness by vaccination
Answer 16

17. Melioidosis:
a. is caused by Pseudomonas pseudotuberculosis
b. is more common in diabetics
c. should be treated with cefuroxime
d. is confined to equatorial Africa and South America
e. is commonly complicated by parotitis
Answer 17

18. The following neoplasms have a known infective aetiology:
a. Burkitt's lymphoma
b. squamous carcinoma of the penis
c. hepatocellular carcinoma
d. squamous carcinoma of the bronchus
e. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Answer 18

19. Characteristic findings in visceral leishmaniasis (kala azar) include:
a. eosinophilia
b. pancytopaenia
c. polyclonal hypergammaglobulinaemia
d. positive leishmanin test
e. lymphadenopathy
Answer 19

20. Parvovirus B19:
a. is the causative agent of fifth disease (erythema infectiosum)
b. was discovered after parvovirus B16
c. antibodies are present in 70% of the UK adult population
d. is a recognised cause of aplastic anaemia
e. is known to cause hydrops fetalis
Answer 20

Copyright: Rob Skelly 2006